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Is It Actually in the Bible?

Phrases people quote as Scripture. The real verse, or the honest answer that there is not one.

"And he entreated Abram well for her sake": sounds like Pharaoh was begging or pleading with Abram

In the KJV, "entreated" often just meant "treated" or "dealt with," not "begged" or "pleaded with."

KJV word, meaning shifted
Genesis 12:16

Genesis 12:16, in every translation this tool compares.

What is actually going on

Genesis 12:16 says of Pharaoh, "he entreated Abram well for her sake": meaning Pharaoh treated Abram favorably and gave him generous gifts because of Sarai, not that Pharaoh begged Abram for anything. "Entreat" in this sense is simply an older form of "treat," used with an adverb of manner ("entreated well," "evil entreated," "spitefully entreated") to describe how one person handled another.

This is a different use from the more familiar KJV "intreat," which does mean "beg" or "implore" (as in Ruth's "intreat me not to leave thee"). The two spellings were used somewhat interchangeably by the translators, which is exactly why the "treat/deal with" sense of "entreat" gets missed by modern readers who only know the "beg" meaning.

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